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Because they don't count people who aren't available for work.
by Colman (colman at eurotrib.com) on Wed Sep 20th, 2006 at 05:39:13 AM EST
[ Parent ]
RIght, but is the fact that 100,000 of those 1.3% are actually working a significant distortion of the figures?

Or to ask bluntly, 1.3% = how many men?

by Metatone (metatone [a|t] gmail (dot) com) on Wed Sep 20th, 2006 at 05:42:36 AM EST
[ Parent ]
It's the 1.3% reduction in the denominator that matters.

Those whom the Gods wish to destroy They first make mad. — Euripides
by Carrie (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Sep 20th, 2006 at 05:47:35 AM EST
[ Parent ]
Sure, up to a point. But in terms of prison labour as an issue, the 100,000 matters too.
by Metatone (metatone [a|t] gmail (dot) com) on Wed Sep 20th, 2006 at 05:49:35 AM EST
[ Parent ]
1.3% of the US male population should be 1M [to one significant figure ;-P ]

Those whom the Gods wish to destroy They first make mad. — Euripides
by Carrie (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Sep 20th, 2006 at 05:52:32 AM EST
[ Parent ]
No, if you don't count the unavailable that's the definition of "active population" (which includes unemployed) and which is of course unreliable as discussed many times here.

I still see no reason not to stick with the real population numbers.

by Laurent GUERBY on Wed Sep 20th, 2006 at 07:29:20 AM EST
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