Is it taken for granted now that the Latin v was pronounced like the modern English w?

Yes. In Latin the consonants V was [w]. When Aeneas explains the battle in Troy, he said "fit uia ui": a road was made forcefully. If that sentence is pronounced as [w], we can observe a case of sound imitative. If not, as [b], so that effect Virgiliano is lost.

When Marcellus was going to embark his troops in Ostia, he heard "caue ne eas" (= do not go) and he aborted the action. What he had heard it was a seller of dried figs de Caunes (accusative exclamativo he had announced "Cauneas!" (= [I sell] de Caunes dried figs!) This is only possible if V = [w].

"Evangelium" comes from the Greek "eu" = good + "anggelos" = envoy. "euangelium" = "good news"

the v and the j for the uses consonants, lowercase, are called "ramistas letters" from Petrus Ramus, who introduced in the first Renaissance.

Sorry. I can not continue. :-D