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Why do you presume that the Euro is a suitable yardstick to measure the value of the dollar against?

How about US inflation?

And how about the fact that inflation since TARP has been lower than it was in the 12 months before TARP?

And how much of the US devaluation viz. the Euro, or of inflation, or of the year-on-year change in inflation, can be attributed to TARP?

What, exactly, are you trying to prove?

En un viejo país ineficiente, algo así como España entre dos guerras civiles, poseer una casa y poca hacienda y memoria ninguna. -- Gil de Biedma

by Carrie (migeru at eurotrib dot com) on Wed Sep 2nd, 2009 at 09:29:40 AM EST

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