The thesis that as a peripheral region, Europe was not sufficiently compelling to bring the Mongol conquest to France on the western cape of the Eurasian continent is certainly not a surprising one ~ surely nobody can pretend that 1000AD Europe was anything but a peripheral region of the larger axial world system.

That's not the part to which I was objecting - does anybody seriously make the opposite argument, that only Europe was strong enough to stand up to the Mongols?